From The Reader Comments
Rose Lear said...
This challenge is to anyone who is willing to come forward and answer this question. Invite Congressman, Senators, Judge, IRS agents, DOJ, media. Anyone who feels qualified to answer this one question.
Ed and Elaine Brown, and every American would like to have clarity on how exactly the 16th Amendment to the Constitution implies taxes upon every "person" when Article 1 Clause 8 clearly states that no direct tax can be imposed without apportionment. This really troubles me to believe that the 16th Amendment overturned a direct Constitutional limitation upon the Congress. In other words how can Congress pass a law, the 16th Amendment, in direct violation to Congress' limitations imposed by Article 1 Clause 8 under capitation and direct taxes?
Did the 16th Amendment overturn the capitation and direct tax limitations imposed by the Constitution?
UPDATE: it's Article 1 Section 9 clause 3.
sorry if I used the wrong sec and clause
This challenge is to anyone who is willing to come forward and answer this question. Invite Congressman, Senators, Judge, IRS agents, DOJ, media. Anyone who feels qualified to answer this one question.
Ed and Elaine Brown, and every American would like to have clarity on how exactly the 16th Amendment to the Constitution implies taxes upon every "person" when Article 1 Clause 8 clearly states that no direct tax can be imposed without apportionment. This really troubles me to believe that the 16th Amendment overturned a direct Constitutional limitation upon the Congress. In other words how can Congress pass a law, the 16th Amendment, in direct violation to Congress' limitations imposed by Article 1 Clause 8 under capitation and direct taxes?
Did the 16th Amendment overturn the capitation and direct tax limitations imposed by the Constitution?
UPDATE: it's Article 1 Section 9 clause 3.
sorry if I used the wrong sec and clause
posted by The Freedom Fellowship at
9:41 AM
6 Comments:
Bob Schultz has been asking the question to show the law for years under the redress of grievences in the 1st amendment clause to no avail. The government just refuses to answer.
This comment has been removed by the author.
Evans v. Gore, 253 US 245 (1920) is another.
The 16th Amendment does not Supercede any other part of the Constitution as Written... Neither can ANY LAW passed through Congress, go against the Constitution as written... Ed Brown has the Constitutional Right... to have every Statute Read during his trial... and the Jurors have the very same right to Review those Statutes for Themselves, as well as any of their Pertaining Regulations.
When the Federal Reserve came to be... It was perceived that Congress had the ability under the Constitution, to Remove the Power Granted to the FED RESV. at any time it was deemed "NO LONGER NECESSARY".
Congress to this day have Failed WE THE PEOPLE in meeting this OBLIGATION.
The Federal Reserve is NO LONGER NEEDED... and is the VERY REASON for our Nations BANKRUPCY and DEBT.
One very Important President Realized this, and PASSED BILL 11110, which WAS and STILL IS the Very tool by which WE THE PEOPLE can LEGALLY shut down the Federal Reserve!
This President was John FitzGerald Kennedy. He was Murdered roughly 6 months after passing this BILL. He was Murdered for this very reason, and for wanting no part of VIETNAM.
Why has no President Utilized Bill 11110? Research this for Yourself, and ask this Question.
Executive Order 1110 gave the US the ability to create its own money backed by silver. ...
http://www.john-f-kennedy.net/executiveorder11110.htm
More directly in regard to your Question... I am no EXPERT... But I can say, and Prove beyond ANY Doubt (as have others)... That the 16th Ammendment WAS NOT RATIFIED. This proof is right in front of anyyone who takes the Time to Discover it.
And if you watch "Theft by Deception" (Free Google Video), You will Learn WHAT THE LAWS SAY, and WHERE THEY ARE WRITTEN.
Oh Yeah... As well as how they have been Re-Written... In order to Conceal CONSTITUTIONAL LAW AND AUTHORITY Specifically Prohibiting Taxation of Labor upon Citizens who are "NOT TAXABLE UNDER LAW".
Who exactly "IS NOT TAXABLE UNDER LAW"?
Any U.S. Citizen who derives their INCOME "Solely from within the United States" and is "NOT A BENEFICIARY OF ANY FEDERAL HOLDING SUCH AS PUERTO RICO OR OTHERS" In essence, this means if You have no Foreign Income, and work within the Private sector... Specifically... not A Federal Employee. The only Income that is in FACT Taxable... is Foreign Earned Income or Gain. The Average American Citizen's U.S. LABOR AND PAYMENT FOR SAID LABOR... Are NOT Taxable "BY THE LAW OF THE CONSTITUTION" and that is EXACTLY WHY it is not Taxable by any other LAW consequently... and is EXACTLY WHY "THEY"... Will Not "SHOW YOU, A LAW"!
Are you Getting this?
Why the hell is this so hard for people to understand? The Facts are out there for Everyone to see, and the LAW EVERYONE'S LOOKING FOR... Is right in the World's Face, And it IS WRITTEN LAW...For all you non-believers, and Critics of "TAX HONESTY ADVOCATES"... Why do think the Government WONT FACE THE LAW in our own Courts? Why do you think the Courts Themselves, and the Government, Refuse to Even Allow the LAW to be Presented, By Ed and Elain Brown?
I can't speak for any of you People... But I've researched the "LAW"... Which is cited by First, the CONSTITUTION OF THE UNITED STATES, and then the Statutes and the Regulations there of.
I can only speak for Myself...
I happen to be Noones Dummy, and the Truth has always come easy, and presented itself Profoundly in my Lifetime, as I have Fervently sought it out.
For the True American Patriot, it is our Duty to also Protect, and Stand just as firmly, if not more... For the Rights of those who are weaker, and cannot Stand for their Own Rights.
Isn't it interesting how all all the "anonymous" posters/liers have yet to returned.
Post a Comment
Subscribe to Post Comments [Atom]
<< Home